I have a person who was born during WW1, the entry for his birth reference gives his surname (obviously) plus the mothers maiden name. These are different. When this man married, he had changed his name to something completely different. I have my own theories on possible reasons for this but wondered what others thought.
Did the father HAVE to be present when a birth was registered in WW1 for the child to be able to use his name?
One suggestion that has been made is that the birth was maybe illegitimate or that the father wasn't around when the birth was registered. If this was the case, wouldn't the entry be different?
It was registered as Mar 1917 Smith John Jones Stoke ....etc. (I have changed the names as, although this man has passed away, he has family still living).
This tells me that his name was John Smith and his mothers maiden name was Jones so his dad had to be a Smith.
If the birth was illegitimate then wouldn't the name have been John Jones and nothing in the maiden name column?
As for the name change....well he became a Brown when he married and still Brown when he died. All of his kids are called Brown. So...although I don't yet know when this name change took place, would it have had to be done legally. If his mum remarried to Mr Brown, would an official adoption have had to take place....he couldn't just assume the name Brown could he? (Although I suppose people do!)
_________________ Mel
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